Dear Colleagues:
I just read Duesberg's lengthy document on separating HIV from AIDS.
He briefly mentions autoimmune disease and HIV(+)AIDS(-) hemophiliacs where
HIV(positivity) seems related to the number of blood transfusions. I was
wondering, could one have HIV(+) without the HIV virus? By this, I mean that a
hemophiliac receives blood from an HIV(+) patient, receives the antibodies but
not the disease, produces the mirror-image anti-antibody which acts like
a vaccine to in turn stimulate antibodies to HIV even in the absence of virus?
