On 14 Mar 1996, Ian A. York wrote:
> >totally different from yeast ste2 and ste3, then that is an important
> >finding. Until we know that to be the case, the fact remains that Patel
> >et al report that ste2 and ste3 ARE expressed in humans.
>> Perhaps if you read the paper, rather than the abstract, then you would
> have been able to discover that important finding.
Ian, I have read the paper and have it in front of me as I write this.
Your interpretation of Patel et al may be correct. But as I look at Table
II on page 86 I find that "TE cells" is used twice, once for STE3 and
once for a molecule they label as TE4.
Therefore, the fact that TE cells and STE3 and linked tells me nothing
very definite about STE3.
Why would authors usurp a nomenclature so standard for yeast proteins?
Why would reviewers allow that to happen?