A potentially stupid question follows. How can Ag's be presented to CD8+
cells (via MHC-I) for viruses which never infect professional APC's? It's
my (admittedly naive) impression that in order for peptides to be presented
on MHC-I molecules the proteins need to be synthesized in the cytoplasm.
Does this mean that highly tissue specific viruses that totally avoid
replication in APC's never have a CTL response directed toward them?
Thanks in advance!