I have got a question about the activation of naive T-cells by viral
antigens.
According to my textbook (Janeway-Travers) activation of CD8+ T-cells
require recognition of MHC class I loaded with viral antigen and
costimulation through CD28 by B7.1 or B7.2 on an APC. All this takes place
in lymphoid tissue.
The question is: What happens if a virus doesn't infect APCs? Say it is
specific for epithelial cells. How does viral peptides then end up on
class I molecules on APCs? I figure that APCs could phagocytise free viral
particles, but wouldn't that result in presentation on class II MHCs?
Is there a flaw in my understanding? Any ideas and comments would be very
welcome.
Regards,
Morten Lindow
Copenhagen, Denmark
