An article in Am J Hum Genet 2001 Sep; 69(3): 582-589 reports
lower-than-expected linkage disequilibrium between tightly linked markers in
The authors suggest that the explanation is that "gene conversion increases
the apparent rate of recombination between nearby loci".
Would not gene conversion on a large scale also reduce the sequence
variation in the human population? As I understand the mechanism, when a
gene is converted an allele is eliminated, so:
"widespread gene conversion = widespread allele loss".