intentional equivalent to blindsight

VCBCC at CUNYVM.CUNY.EDU VCBCC at CUNYVM.CUNY.EDU
Wed Apr 13 08:39:58 EST 1994


Q: Is there an intentional equivalent to blindsight?

   A person who has blindsight is _legally_ blind, because s/he has no
   conscious experience of the qualia of sight. There is evidence that
   people who suffer from blindsight can make visual discriminations,
   but these discriminations are non-conscious discriminations.
   Thus there is one condition in which a person can have a phenomenal
   mental state without consciousness.

   Is there a condition, either natural or through brain damage, in which
   a person can have an intentional mental state but be _unable_ to have a
   corresponding conscious experience of that mental state?


 p.s. Please water down any highly technical responses.




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