Richard Restak in his recent _Receptors_ has a comment in the last chapter
about LSD having as the mechanism of its psychoactive effects a differential
response of excitatory vs. inhibitory subtypes of *histamine* receptors, (as
opposed to serotoninergic ones). Is this an error, or are there metabolic
products responsible ? Can anyone help clear this up for me ?
What are the current theories of LSD action on the brain ?
Dr. Restak also mentions that "quantum mechanical" analysis was used to
determine this. There are no specific references. What is he talking
about ?
kind regards,
todd
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| Todd I. Stark stark at dwovax.enet.dec.com |
| Digital Equipment Corporation (215) 542-3573 |
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| "There are four basic types : the cretin, the imbecile, the stupid, and the |
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