QUESTION regarding autoreceptor affinity

Jon Stamford j.stamford at
Thu Sep 14 04:19:04 EST 1995


This is a really interesting question and one which has been puzzling a lot of minds. My own 
feeling is that this has to do with the local receptor geography. If both postsynaptic and 
presynaptic receptors were exposed to the same concentration of transmitter, then it makes no 
sense as you say. Suppose however that the postsynaptic receptors were intrasynaptic while the 
autoreceptors were perisynaptic. Under these conditions the transmitter would wash over the 
postsynaptic receptors and exert a response before diffusing to the autoreceptors to shut off 
release.Sound plausible?

Jon Stamford

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