QUESTION regarding autoreceptor affinity

Russell A. Gazzara rgazzara at
Fri Sep 22 16:02:15 EST 1995

In article <438s28$q0q at> Jon Stamford <j.stamford at> writes:
>Subject: Re: QUESTION regarding autoreceptor affinity
>From: Jon Stamford <j.stamford at>
>Date: 14 Sep 1995 09:19:04 GMT


>This is a really interesting question and one which has been puzzling a lot of minds. My own 
>feeling is that this has to do with the local receptor geography. If both postsynaptic and 
>presynaptic receptors were exposed to the same concentration of transmitter, then it makes no 
>sense as you say. Suppose however that the postsynaptic receptors were intrasynaptic while the 
>autoreceptors were perisynaptic. Under these conditions the transmitter would wash over the 
>postsynaptic receptors and exert a response before diffusing to the autoreceptors to shut off 
>release.Sound plausible?

>Jon Stamford

Sounds good to me, Jon.

BTW, hi Jon, remember me?  Stearate-modified carbon paste voltammetry, 
voltammetry meeting in London, pharmacology meeting in Sydney?

Hope you are well?

Russ Gazzara

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