QUESTION regarding autoreceptor affinity
Russell A. Gazzara
rgazzara at fdant.nctr.fda.gov
Fri Sep 22 16:02:15 EST 1995
In article <438s28$q0q at epsilon.qmw.ac.uk> Jon Stamford <j.stamford at lhmc.ac.uk> writes:
>Subject: Re: QUESTION regarding autoreceptor affinity
>From: Jon Stamford <j.stamford at lhmc.ac.uk>
>Date: 14 Sep 1995 09:19:04 GMT
>This is a really interesting question and one which has been puzzling a lot of minds. My own
>feeling is that this has to do with the local receptor geography. If both postsynaptic and
>presynaptic receptors were exposed to the same concentration of transmitter, then it makes no
>sense as you say. Suppose however that the postsynaptic receptors were intrasynaptic while the
>autoreceptors were perisynaptic. Under these conditions the transmitter would wash over the
>postsynaptic receptors and exert a response before diffusing to the autoreceptors to shut off
Sounds good to me, Jon.
BTW, hi Jon, remember me? Stearate-modified carbon paste voltammetry,
voltammetry meeting in London, pharmacology meeting in Sydney?
Hope you are well?
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