>>Why should we *not* expect to find a 4hz response in the brain when those
>>who tune musical instruments have been using this "beat" phenomenon for
>>generations to perform this task, or am I misunderstanding the question?
>>The effect can be measured physically and organically.
>>The 4 Hz response Emery referred to is in the EEG. Certainly people can
>perceive auditory stimuli at 4 Hz, but it doesn't necessarily mean that the
>EEG is entrained at that frequency.
Yeah, well that's not what I'm talking about.
What I'm talking about is using binaural beats to entrain brainwave
frequencies -- one frequency is played in one ear and another frequency
is played in the other ear. When that happens, the brain perceives a
That's pretty much all I know about it right now, however, I know that it
has been proven to be a useful method for entraining brainwaves (in the
All I want to know is if anyone has the information as to which
frequencies will create which responses...