Let me preface this with the disclaimer and apology that I have had no
pharmacology. With that said, what is the difference between an
antagonist and an inverse agonist? The best distinction I've been able
to muster is that an antagonist could not suppress the tonic level of
stimulation of an unliganded receptor but an inverse agonist could. Is
this on the right track? I've not found any definition for this term
anywhere I've looked.
Thanks for the clarification.
bracey at scripps.edu