brain sizes: Einstein's and women's
lojbab at lojban.org
Sun Sep 1 15:07:33 EST 2002
"John Knight" <jwknight at polbox.com> wrote:
>Where did Strong's get the authority to "reinterpret" Judah to mean jew.
>From the Hebrew language, which was not merely the language of the
Bible, but a language which thousands of people spoke and wrote for
thousands of years.
>Certainly not from the Holy Bible. The Holy Bible NEVER infers that
> "Yhudiy" is "patronymic from H3063", the definition of "Yhudah",
The Bible is not a dictionary, and doesn't infer any meanings. Hebrew
is still Hebrew, and Yhudiy is the patronymic form of Yhudah.
>a completely different race of people called Israelites who were from
> a completely different geographic location than the jews were from.
Repeating it a thousand times won't make it a bit more true.
>(Chaldee); contracted from a form. corresponding to H3063; properly Judah, hence Judaea: - Jewry, Judah, Judea.
>Most modern translators recognize the error and translate it as "Judah". The error occurs two more times in the New Testament:
It is not an error. "Jewry" meant "the land of Judah".
>This inability of both the KJV translators and Strong's to keep the
> distinction between Judah and Jehudi clear is an affront to the
> intelligence of 2 billion Christians worldwide.
In other words, if it doesn't fit your prejudices, what the Holy Bible
says is a lie.
You are a LIAR and you speak the words of your master the Prince of
>It's not a minor sleight of hand--it's an insult to God.
YOU are an insult to God.
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