I have a question

Mark Zarella NzOaSrPeAlMlam at twcny.rr.com
Sun Feb 9 11:26:06 EST 2003


> >I don't understand.  Aren't thalamocortical oscillations usually in the
7-15
> >Hz range?
>
> Depends on the state of the individual. Can be 2-3x higher.

Of course.

>
> >  How does that give rise to a limit?
> >How can temporal frequency perception be limited by any thalamic
activity?
>
> See Llinas' papers.

Will do.  Thank you.

>
> >Am I incorrect that responses in V1 exhibit higher frequency detection
than
> >psychophysical data illustrates?
>
> I am not surprised to find higher frequency activity in any area,
> including brainstem.  I though the issue was the limits of
> psycophysical resolution.
>
> >Wouldn't this imply that the limitation
> >lies in "higher" areas?
>
> Higher?  Why?

Because if neurons in, say, V1 exhibit a response to higher frequency
stimulation than the response of "perception", then this "low-pass filter"
would be located in post-V1 areas, no?  If that's the case, then I wouldn't
make the assumption that there's any kind of constancy or  linearity
involved.





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