I have a question
NzOaSrPeAlMlam at twcny.rr.com
Sun Feb 9 11:26:06 EST 2003
> >I don't understand. Aren't thalamocortical oscillations usually in the
> >Hz range?
> Depends on the state of the individual. Can be 2-3x higher.
> > How does that give rise to a limit?
> >How can temporal frequency perception be limited by any thalamic
> See Llinas' papers.
Will do. Thank you.
> >Am I incorrect that responses in V1 exhibit higher frequency detection
> >psychophysical data illustrates?
> I am not surprised to find higher frequency activity in any area,
> including brainstem. I though the issue was the limits of
> psycophysical resolution.
> >Wouldn't this imply that the limitation
> >lies in "higher" areas?
> Higher? Why?
Because if neurons in, say, V1 exhibit a response to higher frequency
stimulation than the response of "perception", then this "low-pass filter"
would be located in post-V1 areas, no? If that's the case, then I wouldn't
make the assumption that there's any kind of constancy or linearity
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