On Wed, 15 Dec 2004 13:38:11 +0100, 1234 <123412 at 101.com> wrote:
>I have read some stuff about neurology over the internet. There is one
>thing I don't understand about the synaptic communication:
>>A neuron releases a neurotransmitter in the synapse to communicate with
>another neuron. Now the second neuron is stimulated and active until
>the re-uptake clears up the neurotransmitter from there, is this correct?
After an action potential (post synaptic) , there is a refractory
period. However, if the NT is in the cleft, it'll keep stimulating
>much time does it take for the re-uptake mechanism to clear up
>everything? I suppose it should be something in the order of magnitude
>of seconds, otherwise an old idea/reasoning wouldn't go out of our mind
>and we wouldn't be able to think to something else, correct?
>Sorry, don't know.
>In this scenario, what is the purpose of the re-uptake inhibitors? To
>confuse our minds by making the old reasonings last in our mind for
>hours instead of seconds?
Not reasonings. Brightness, focus, contrast, moods.
>>>Also how could things like Adrafinil (norepinephrine agonist) work? Is
>it stored in vesicules at the end of axons together with the
>norepinephrine and released into the synapses together with it?
>NE agonist, eh? That would be different than modafinil, then....
Not stored. Diffusion. Diffusion. OK?
>Is it subject to the same re-uptake as the norepinephrine or it stays in
>the synaptic cleft for a long time until slowly goes to the plasma? (if
>latter: it would cause roughly the same effect of a reuptake inhibitor,
There ought to be one day-- just one-- when
there is open season on senators.