First off, I don't know who's an expert on this and I don't pretend to be
one. :)
Now, my two cents. It is my understanding that your neurohormone antagonist
is not an endogenous peptide. The dogma is, any "non-self" molecule that is
large enough would (should) trigger an immune response. But then you have a
host of papers that document exceptions. All cases where no immune reaction
can be detected and no logical explanation can be found are included in the
"anergy" category, as if this were a real mechanism. In practice, you just
have to test your peptide.
I am not sure I understand the other question:
> If so, I wonder if there is a potential auto-immune reaction, in which
> the body would attack its own neurohormone?
Do you think the neurohormione-agonist complex cound be immunogenic and
attacked as such by the immune system?
"P. Sage" <polysage at yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:cdf760b.0306171343.2732bf54 at posting.google.com...
> I am involved in a phase 2 study of a new drug which is a neurohormone
> agonist. It is a cyclic polypeptide consisting about 8 amino acids,
> and is administered intranasally.
>> Recently, I read an article about a novel type of influenza vaccine
> which consists of a peptide that is delivered as a nasal spray. The
> study showed that antibodies to the peptide were produced by the
> animals being tested. (the article is here:
>http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2003/05/030528081410.htm )
>> My question is: is it possible that people could develop antibodies to
> this neurohormone agonist, since it is also a peptide delivered as a
> nasal spray?
>> If so, I wonder if there is a potential auto-immune reaction, in which
> the body would attack its own neurohormone?
>> It is true that self proteins or polypeptides don't usually cause
> antibodies to develop, however there are many documented cases in
> which compounds which are similar but not identical to self molecules
> do cause auto-immune reactions. One of the more serious of these is
> Ankylosing Spondylitis, thought to be caused by an autoimmune reaction
> provoked by certain bacterial antigens.
>> There is also the question of route of administration -- the same
> peptide which would cause no antibody reaction when presented orally
> could possibly cause one when presented intra-nasally, I think.
>> Anyway, is this a real concern, or an I just being paranoid. What do
> you (experts) think?
>> Thanks,
> PS
