I'm still curious as to whether anyone has any information or speculation
as to the determining factors of habituation as opposed to sensitization.
As far as I can see, the two processes oppose one another. My queries are:
1) what causes the difference in response on a neurochemical/
neuroanatomical level? is it, for example, sensitivity in
the affected region; or type of neurochemical (excit or inhib)
at that location?
2) although both responses have an evolutionary advantage, how
does the nervous system determine which is appropriate (and
does this ever get screwed up?) in other words, is the type
of response peculiar to the stimulus?
Any ideas would be appreciated.
- Hannah Pazderka-Robinson
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