"Zayton" <zayton at bellsouth.net> wrote in message news:mi9b9.86932$%v4.4664562 at e3500-atl2.usenetserver.com...
And why didn't you produce just ONE example of Holy Scripture where a member of the Tribe of Benjamin who lived in Judaea was ever referred to as a "jew"?
*Esther 2:5
"Now there was a Jew in Susa, the capital whose name was Mordecah, the son of Jair, son of Shimei, son of Kish, a Benjaminite,...."
Because you cannot?
*But John, I just did.
No, Zayton, what you DID do was produce the Holy Scripture which refers to a JEW.
Mordecai wasn't an Israelite--because he was a JEW.
ONE of Mordecai's four great-grand fathers was an Israelite, of the Tribe of Benjamin. But because the Holy Bible referred to Mordecai a JEW and not as an Israelite, at least ONE of his other great-grandfathers, if not all of the rest, had to have been JEWS.
It's well documented throughout the Holy Bible that none of the children of an Israelite who ever married a JEW was considered to be an Israelite:
Bastard
A bastard shall not enter into the congregation of the LORD; even to his tenth generation shall he not enter into the congregation of the LORD, Deuteronomy 23:2
Perhaps you could argue that the descendants of such an Israelite could re-enter "the congregation of the LORD" after ten generations, but not even that would prove that they would be considered to be Israelites at that point.
John Knight
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