"Zayton" <zayton at bellsouth.net> wrote in message news:h5wb9.94994$%v4.5208633 at e3500-atl2.usenetserver.com...
"John Knight" <jwknight at polbox.com> wrote in message news:ootb9.22661$Ic7.1809730 at news2.west.cox.net...
"Zayton" <zayton at bellsouth.net> wrote in message news:mi9b9.86932$%v4.4664562 at e3500-atl2.usenetserver.com...
And why didn't you produce just ONE example of Holy Scripture where a member of the Tribe of Benjamin who lived in Judaea was ever referred to as a "jew"?
*Esther 2:5
"Now there was a Jew in Susa, the capital whose name was Mordecah, the son of Jair, son of Shimei, son of Kish, a Benjaminite,...."
Because you cannot?
*But John, I just did.
No, Zayton, what you DID do was produce the Holy Scripture which refers to a JEW.
Mordecai wasn't an Israelite--because he was a JEW.
*At least try to be consistant in your drivel, John. You asked for an example of a mamber of the tribe of Benjamin being called a Jew. You claim that members of that tribe are "Israelites" but not "Jews"; even though the name of theri reigion of the country is the source of the term "Jew". I gave you a reference to Mordechi, who, even though he is no longer living in Judea is still called a Jew.
Your mistake is that you keep on claiming that the source of the word "jew" is "theri reigion of the country" [presumably Judaea], but you were given 200 references from the Holy Bible which dispute that statement and instead show the source of the word "jew" to be Yhudiy and his descendants.
Why persist in this jewish sleight of hand, Zayton? Why do you continue to dispute the Holy Bible? Why do you continue to insist that the JEW Mordecai was an Israelite when he could NOT have been an Israelite, according to both Israelite and jewish law? Why can't you recognize that having one great-grandparent who was an Israelite of the Tribe of Benjamin (and up to 7 great-grandparents who were JEWS), does not make Mordecai an Israelite--it makes him a JEW?
ONE of Mordecai's four great-grand fathers was an Israelite, of the Tribe of Benjamin. But because the Holy Bible referred to Mordecai a JEW and not as an Israelite, at least ONE of his other great-grandfathers, if not all of the rest, had to have been JEWS.
*I gave you the citatiion for Mordechi, the Benjaminite Jew; Where the reference for your bizzaire claims. The Bible doesn't say that his great-grandfather was both a Benjaminite and a Jew. It says that he was. Your racist lies are in conflict with the Bible, John.
This paragraph does not say that. Re-read that paragraph very carefully. From the Holy Bible, we know of only ONE of his great-grandparents who was an Israelite, and that was Kish, a Benjamite:
Est 2:5 Now in Shushan the palace there was a certain Jew, whose name was Mordecai, the son of Jair, the son of Shimei, the son of Kish, a Benjamite;
No, his great-grandfather Kish was not a jew, because he was an Israelite. But, no, by Israelite law, if just one of Mordecai's great-grandparents was a jew, then Mordecai was NOT an Israelite.
Since Mordecai WAS a jew, at least one of his 8 great-grandparents had to have been a jew, so he was NOT an Israelite.
It's well documented throughout the Holy Bible that none of the children of an Israelite who ever married a JEW was considered to be an Israelite:
* John You keep repeating this lie, but you never give any evidence. Why? Because there isn't any!
What better an example could you ask for than the jew Mordecai who had one great-granparent who was an Israelite?
Joe
Bastard
A bastard shall not enter into the congregation of the LORD; even to his tenth generation shall he not enter into the congregation of the LORD, Deuteronomy 23:2
Perhaps you could argue that the descendants of such an Israelite could re-enter "the congregation of the LORD" after ten generations, but not even that would prove that they would be considered to be Israelites at that point.
John Knight
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