In <fa69ae35.0305010825.5db91935 at posting.google.com>, Eray Ozkural exa writes:
>> Note that multi-valued logic is equivalent in power to classical
> logic.
What exactly do you mean by that?
How could Lukasiewicz's FO logic be non-axiomatiseable then?
> That _naturally_ includes fuzzy logic.
Assuming you have a precise definition for fuzzy logic.
regards
Stephan
f'up2 set to sci.logic