In article <Dtnn52.41E at murdoch.acc.virginia.edu>,
caw9c at dayhoff.med.Virginia.EDU (Charles A. Whittaker) writes:
>I have heard it said that humans and chimps are 98% identical
>at the genetic level. Why then do chips look like chimps and
>people look like people? What do you think would happen if you
>replaced every bit of protein coding sequence in the chimp genome
>with human coding sequence? In other words, is the difference in
>appearance generated at the level of the 2% difference or somewhere
>else?
>>just wondering
>>charlie
> Hi,
There are lot of genes in a mammalian genome, so that 2% can be
sufficient to make the difference. If these differences are in developmental
genes, then the effect of one mutation can be very important. Look at some
human development deseases, caused by only one gene or just a gene
translocation (movement on a chromosome or part of a chromosome).
Lot of genes are common for lot organism, if you look at the
systems for energy production and basic gene transcription.
Last, I don't know how your 2% were determined and if it's true.
hope this helps,
Francois.
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Francois Jeanmougin
Service de bioinformatique / bioinformatic service
IGBMC
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