As an experimental/experiential dietary researcher, I frequently have
conversations with people who make always-unsupported claims that although
the human is a frugivorous ape, we "adapted" to animal flesh and cooked food
in the relatively short time that such practices have been in vogue.
Since human digestive/transport/assimilation biochemistry is a very
complex system, I conclude it is impossible for several dozens of pathways
to magically and simultaneously shift, or be created out of nothing, by
stochastic mechanisms, such to be able to properly digest/assimilate animal
flesh. In fact, humans who abandon animal products uniformly experience an
increase in health and elimination of body/urine/fecal odors, which supports
the conclusion that no adaptation ever took place.
Since the removal of genes from the gene pool can occur only by
death-before-reproduction, and cultural diets no matter how poor do not kill
their followers before reproductive age, there seems to be no 'selective
mechanism' to allow such alleged 'adaptation'.
Would people with scientific credibility comment on the mechanisms, or
lack of mechanisms, necessary to 'adapt' to such non-natural dietary items?
Laurie
_____
Get my diet articles free: | Bust SPAMMERS!
http://www.ecologos.org/articles.htm | http://spamcop.net/
