Much has recently been written about the plasticity of adult brains. Following peripheral denervation or sensorimotor training, significant changes can occur in the response properties of cortical neurons and the details of somatosensory and motor cortical maps. Do such physiological changes mean that the sensory or motor function of the affected neurons has changed accordingly? Can the "behavioral function" of adult mammalian neurons ever change? If so, under what circumstances?
I welcome any comments on these issues. GSD