I recently heard of a theory that the increase in student-committed school
shootings (which seems to result from something that didn't exist before the
1990's) is due to the marked increase in the prescribing of psychoactive
drugs to students. This theory was based on the claim that every single one
of these disturbed individuals was on Ritalin, Prozac, or some similar-such
widely-prescribed drug, which are believed to cause psychosis in a tiny
percentage of patients.
Does anyone know if this statistic is valid?
Syracuse University Psychology Department
P.S. This would explain the fact that all of the shootings have occurred in,
at the lowest, middle-class school districts; poorer parents would not be
able to afford such medication.