The idea of the visual system causing contralateral representation in the
other sensory and motor systems is not my personal idea. I'll look for the
reference. Of course, it is hypothetical because there's no way to really
test "why" it happened that way. Further, I only suggested that it was the
best possible explanation that I had seen to date. Does anyone else have a
better explanation? I am open-minded on this issue and willing to give
consideration to alternate views.
Richard Norman <rsnorman at mediaone.net> wrote in message
news:Dpqb6.43360$ft6.949856 at typhoon.mw.mediaone.net...
> You are right. The "homunculus" in the sensory and motor cortex is
> twisted every which way and it makes not the slightest difference. It
> makes absolutely no difference that the retinotopic mapping in
> the primary visual cortex is twisted, convoluted, and mightily
> distorted and misshapen. And no one ever was concerned with
> whether the mapping in the geniculate was upside down!
>> All that matters is that this particular neuron somehow "knows"
> that it is associated with this particular part of the visual field,
> or part of the body.