> >I don't understand. Aren't thalamocortical oscillations usually in the
7-15
> >Hz range?
>> Depends on the state of the individual. Can be 2-3x higher.
Of course.
>> > How does that give rise to a limit?
> >How can temporal frequency perception be limited by any thalamic
activity?
>> See Llinas' papers.
Will do. Thank you.
>> >Am I incorrect that responses in V1 exhibit higher frequency detection
than
> >psychophysical data illustrates?
>> I am not surprised to find higher frequency activity in any area,
> including brainstem. I though the issue was the limits of
> psycophysical resolution.
>> >Wouldn't this imply that the limitation
> >lies in "higher" areas?
>> Higher? Why?
Because if neurons in, say, V1 exhibit a response to higher frequency
stimulation than the response of "perception", then this "low-pass filter"
would be located in post-V1 areas, no? If that's the case, then I wouldn't
make the assumption that there's any kind of constancy or linearity
involved.
