"KP_PC" <k.p.collins at worldnet.att.net> wrote in message news:<X5qEa.113921$cO3.8350592 at bgtnsc04-news.ops.worldnet.att.net>...
> "Anomaly Magnetism" <magnetic-heat-sound at excite.com> wrote in message
> news:3f3e2522.0306062201.322fdcbc at posting.google.com...> | Hi:
> |
> | I recently visited the website
> | http://www.epub.org.br/cm/n02/mente/neurobiologia_i.htm> |
> | This website claims REM sleep EEG is
> | of higher frequency (60-70 Hz) than Beta
> | wave EEG (13-30 Hz). Is this true? How
> | is this possible? REM state, though active,
> | is more relaxed than beta. Due to this, one
> | would expect beta frequency to be higher
> | than REM. Right??
>> I've got an excellent sleep text, but it's stored
> away, so I couldn't independently verify the REM
> figure, but the beta Hz is correct.
>> It doesn't matter though.
>> The body's muscle tone is 'relaxed' during
> REM sleep - it's 'disconnected' - because, if it
> were not, then you'd wake yourself up by
> 'thrashing' around when you were dreaming
> [and also give your position away to predators].
>> REM sleep EEG doesn't correspond to muscle
> tone.
Correct. They don't. EEG and muscle tone are two totally different
things. Use and EMG to detect muscle tone.
It is the frequency of the *brain waves* (NOT muscle tone) I was
describing.
I am still confused over why a relatively relaxed state of the brain
(REM sleep) would have a higher frequency than a more intense state
(beta wave). So how does this work?
