[Neuroscience] Re: "Brain" Deafness

Brian.D.Duryee briandd at broadpark.no
Sun Dec 25 18:38:47 EST 2005

Why shouldn't there be deafness as a result of brain-damage (or malfunction) 
only? And if it is unilateral or not, it depends on the locus of the 
abnormality. I'd think the closest would be the Thalamus in this case. In my 
own 'case', I'd think the high-pitched tone is due to too load music in my 
earlier years, and mechanical damage in certain parts in the cochlea, not 
neural damage.


Edit. Please be adviced I'm not an M.D. I don't want to get sued.

"Radium" <glucegen1 at excite.com> skrev i melding 
news:1135482689.611974.272080 at f14g2000cwb.googlegroups.com...
> Hi:
> Have there ever been cases of subjects experiencing sudden and total
> deafness as a result of an abnormality in the brain only? Is this
> deafness ever unilateral? Is it accompanied by the false perception of
> a high-pitched sine-wave tone resembling that of a and CRT screen or
> electronic dog-whistle? If the deafness is unilateral while the false
> perception of this tone be only in the deaf ear?
> Thanks,
> Radium

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