brain sizes: Einstein's and women's

John Knight jwknight at polbox.com
Tue Aug 27 12:33:30 EST 2002


"Zayton" <zayton at bellsouth.net> wrote in message
news:%Kwa9.3723$Hd4.1902875 at e3500-atl1.usenetserver.com...
>
> "John Knight" <jwknight at polbox.com> wrote in message
> news:_Tta9.10583$Ic7.1069024 at news2.west.cox.net...
> > Thank you for that reply.
> >
> > Throughout the entire Holy Bible, the English word "jew" is always
> > translated from the Hebrew word "Yhudiy" or the Greek word "Ioudaios"
> > (Strong's 3065 and 2453, respectively).  There are no exceptions.
>
> Strongs geves the meaning of word 3065 as "an Israelite"!
> It lists 2453 as meaning either a Jew _in a geographical sense_ or a
Judean.

Precisely.

But this is disputed by the actual Word of God in the Holy Bible.

You cannot find a single instance in the Holy Bible that supports this
statement by Strong.


> >
> > It is not a reference to geography--it is always a reference to
genealogy.
>
> Not according to your own, outdated, King James based source.

There are 23,000 translational errors in the King James Bible.  But this
isn't one of them.  The KJV translators always translated the words "Yhudiy"
or "Ioudaios" into the English word "jew", and nothing else.

> >
> > ONLY when a "Yhudiy" or "Ioudaios" lived in Judaea would they be
referred
> to
> > by the English word "jew"
>
> No. According to your own sources, the opposite relationship is true. only
> when a Jew lived in Judea would the writers of the received text use the
> word Ioudaious to describe them.
>

hmmm, maybe, but the important point is that no other race in Judaea except
"jews" were ever called "jews".

> . But no other races in Judaea were ever called
> > "jews",
>
> No race is ever called Jews. Jew Israelite or Hebrew are used to name a
> religious, cultural or national grouping; not a race.

Incorrect.  It's only descendants of "Yhudiy" who are called "jews", which
makes them a race.  It's true that only "jews" preached or practiced the
Mishnah (which later became the Talmud, and is commonly known now as
"Judaism"), and that no other race ever did, but the words "Yhudiy" and
"Ioudaios" refer to one specific patriarch.


>
>  particularly not the Israelites who were members of the Tribe of
> > Judah or the Tribe of Benjamin who are known to have lived in that area
at
> > the time.
>
> But John, according to your own source the Judeans, the tribes of Judah
and
> Benjamin ARE the "Jews". Look at the words, John: "Jew", "Judah", "Judea"
> Listen to their sounds. They are forms of the same word. The group for
which
> you want to reserve the name Israelite, and distinguish from the "Jews",
are
> the very source of the term Jew.
> >
>


No.  "Yhudah" and "Yhudiy" are two different people born in two very
different territories with two very different types of descendants, and just
because they sound the same or are next to each other in Strong's doesn't
alter the carefully described genealogy of the Holy Bible, at all.

This is graphically represented at
http://christianparty.net/noahgenealogy.htm to make it easier to follow.
There are links to other graphs which concur with this graph, namely because
they were drawn from the same Holy Bible.

If you find an error, please let me know and it will be corrected asap.

John Knight









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